it is like the FA saying he is guilty.
Suarez has been banned for 8 games but has not been charged by the police?the FA banned Suarez which means they have evidence he was guilty.so the FA should not have dealt with Suarez until they handed the evidence over to the police and the police decided if they wanted to charge him .
If that had been done it would have been equality in the cases of Terry and Suarez ,we now have the situation where Suarez has been found guilty by the FA and no charges by the police,and Terry found guilty by the FA stripped of the captaincy but as yet no ban from matches ,and the Terry incident was in a club game not an international.
How can the FA justify its actions? perhaps the FA should be charged for with holding evidence of a crime by Suarez.
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